UPSC CMS 2025 Paper II Question Paper PDF | Surgery, Gynaecology
- Year 2025
- Conducted By UPSC
- Questions 120
- Maximum Marks 250
- Duration Two Hours
- Languages English
Exam Details
| Detail | Information |
|---|---|
| Examination | UPSC Combined Medical Services Examination |
| Year | 2025 |
| Conducting Body | UPSC |
| Paper | Paper-II (Surgery, Gynaecology & Obstetrics, Preventive & Social Medicine) |
| Subject | Medical |
| Duration | Two Hours |
| Maximum Marks | 250 |
| Number of Questions | 120 |
| Question Type | Objective (MCQ) |
This is the Paper II (Surgery, Gynaecology & Obstetrics, Preventive & Social Medicine) question paper for the UPSC Combined Medical Services Examination held in 2025. Conducted by UPSC, this exam aims to recruit medical professionals. The paper is designed to test candidates' knowledge across specialized medical fields. It consists of 120 objective-type questions to be answered within a duration of two hours, carrying a maximum of 250 marks. This paper is a crucial resource for aspirants preparing for the UPSC CMS exam, offering insights into the question patterns and difficulty level.
Major Topics Covered
- Surgery
- Gynaecology
- Obstetrics
- Preventive Medicine
- Social Medicine
- Medical
Why This Paper is Important
- Useful for UPSC Combined Medical Services Examinati preparation
- Helps understand the latest exam pattern
- Useful for practice and self-assessment
- Covers frequently asked General Studies topics
- Helpful for analysing question trends
Related Resources
- UPSC CMS 2024 Paper II
- UPSC CMS 2023 Paper II
- UPSC CMS 2025 Paper I
- UPSC CMS 2024 Paper I
- UPSC CMS 2025 Paper II Answer Key
- UPSC CMS Syllabus
- Surgery Syllabus
- Gynaecology Syllabus
Instructions
- THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC.
- IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
- Please note that it is the candidate's responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test
- Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet.
- Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
- You have to enter your Roll Number on the
- Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
- DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
- This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions).
- Each item comprises four responses (answers).
- will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet.
- In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best.
- In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
- You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
- Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
- you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
- After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
- concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet.
- You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
- Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
- THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
- There are four alternatives for the answer to every question.
- For each question for which a wrong answer (i) has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
- If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given (ii) answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
- (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
- DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
Questions (page 2)
Q2. Which of the following are criteria for cancer screening?
- (i) Screening test should be sensitive and specific
- (ii) Screening test should be acceptable to the screened population
- (iii) The disease should be an uncommon one for screening to be effective
- (iv) Disease should be recognisable at an early stage
Q3. A 45-year-old lady presents with complaints of fatigue, muscle weakness along with bilateral multiple renal calculi which were picked up on a routine ultrasound. Further workup revealed serum calcium levels of 11.4 mg%. What is the next best investigation required to arrive at a diagnosis?
Q4. Which of the following are the aetiological factors associated with a communicating hydrocephalus?
- (i) Post haemorrhagic
- (ii) Lesions within the ventricle
- (iii) CSF infection
- (iv) Raised CSF protein
Q5. Which of the following statements are correct regarding a brain abscess?
- (i) Abscesses arise when the brain is exposed directly as a result of fracture or infection of air sinus.
- (ii) Presenting features include low grade fever, confusion, seizures and focal deficits.
- (iii) MRI with contrast is the initial imaging modality of choice.
- (iv) The aetological agents include bacteria, fungi, protozoa and viruses.
Question paper preview
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Frequently asked questions
What is the name of the exam?
The exam is the UPSC Combined Medical Services Examination.
What is the year of this question paper?
This question paper is from the year 2025.
Which paper is this?
This is Paper-II, covering Surgery, Gynaecology & Obstetrics, and Preventive & Social Medicine.
Who conducts the UPSC CMS exam?
The exam is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
What is the total time allowed for the exam?
The time allowed for the exam is Two Hours.
What are the maximum marks for this paper?
The maximum marks for this paper are 250.