UPSC Engineering Services 2024 Electronics Paper II Question Paper PDF
- Year 2024
- Conducted By UPSC
- Questions 150
- Maximum Marks 300
- Duration Three Hours
- Languages English
Exam Details
| Detail | Information |
|---|---|
| Examination | Engineering Services (Preliminary) Examination |
| Year | 2024 |
| Conducting Body | UPSC |
| Paper | PAPER II ELECTRONICS AND TELECOMMUNICATION ENGINEERING |
| Subject | Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering |
| Duration | Three Hours |
| Maximum Marks | 300 |
| Number of Questions | 150 |
| Question Type | Objective (MCQ) |
This is the official question paper for the UPSC Engineering Services (Preliminary) Examination 2024, Paper II, focusing on Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering. The exam, conducted by UPSC, tests candidates' knowledge in the subject with a total of 300 marks and a duration of three hours. It comprises 150 objective-type questions, making it a crucial resource for aspirants preparing for the ESE exam. Analyzing this paper helps understand the exam pattern, difficulty level, and important topics covered.
Major Topics Covered
- Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering
- Transistors
- Amplifiers
- Operational Amplifiers (Op-amp)
- Common Collector Configuration
- MOSFET
- Lasers
Why This Paper is Important
- Useful for Engineering Services (Preliminary) Exami preparation
- Helps understand the latest exam pattern
- Useful for practice and self-assessment
- Covers frequently asked General Studies topics
- Helpful for analysing question trends
Related Resources
- UPSC Engineering Services 2023 Paper II Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering
- UPSC Engineering Services 2022 Paper II Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering
- UPSC Engineering Services 2021 Paper II Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering
- ESE 2024 Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering Answer Key
- ESE Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering Syllabus
- ESE Exam Pattern
- IES Officer
- GATE Electronics and Communication Engineering
Instructions
- THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC.
- IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
- Please note that it is the candidate's responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test
- Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet.
- Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
- You have to enter your Roll Number on the
- Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
- DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
- This Test Booklet contains 150 items (questions).
- Each item comprises four responses (answers).
- will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet.
- In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best.
- In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
- You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
- in the Answer Sheet. All items carry equal marks.
- Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
- you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
- After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
- concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet.
- You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
- Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
- THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE.
- There are four alternatives for the answer to every question.
- For each question for which a wrong answer (i) has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
- If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given (ii) answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
- If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that (iii) question.
- DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO (1-A)
Questions (page 2)
Q2. Which one of the following is correct for the circuit shown below?
Q3.
Consider the following statements regarding essential characteristics of a practical op-amp:
1. The open-loop voltage gain A_{OL} is negatively infinite.
2. The input impedance between terminals 1 and 2 is infinitely large and the input current is zero.
3. The output impedance is zero and the output voltage is independent of the load.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Q4.
Consider the following statements regarding common collector configuration :
1. The common-collector configuration is used primarily for impedance-matching purposes.
2. It has a high input impedance and low output impedance, opposite to that of the common-base configuration.
3. A common-collector circuit configuration is provided with the load resistor connected from emitter to ground.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Q5. I_{DSS} is the maximum drain current for a JFET and is defined by the conditions
Q6. In which one of the following is it used that the particular operating wavelength can be selected at the time of device fabrication by an appropriate choice of the reflector spacing?
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Frequently asked questions
What is the full name of the exam?
The full name of the exam is Engineering Services (Preliminary) Examination.
Which conducting body organizes this exam?
The exam is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
What is the year of this question paper?
The year of this question paper is 2024.
Which paper is this question paper for?
This is Paper II, focusing on Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering.
What is the maximum marks for this paper?
The maximum marks for this paper are 300.
What is the time allowed for this paper?
The time allowed for this paper is Three Hours.